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 1850's and karl marxes time.

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Black_Cross
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Stos
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1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Empty
PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeSat Sep 20, 2008 5:10 pm

Of course not. How does one exploit a bunch of land separated from the rest by artificial boundaries? I doubt that the land would mind.
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Zealot_Kommunizma
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeSat Sep 20, 2008 6:48 pm

mattabesta wrote:


what do you mean icelandic companies have factories in the us, denmark, norway, UK, irealnd canade and russia so ICELAND is exploiting the US?

To a lesser extent yes. Icelander owners are exploiting Unitedstatian, British, Irish, Canadian and Russian workers.

I call it "country exploitation" though when the presence of foreign companies is massive within the exploited country and when these foreign nations have a larger presence and domainance in that country than that country has in them.

Of course, objectively, even Mexican owners having companies in France would exploit french workers.

Stos wrote:
Of course not. How does one exploit a bunch of land separated from the rest by artificial boundaries? I doubt that the land would mind

When I say "countries" I'm referring to the populations of those countries.
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Jeiro Sijakeuigwan
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeSun Sep 21, 2008 12:39 am

Prime example of exploitation: US military in Germany, Korea, Latin America, Japan, etc. Especially in Germany and Japan.

Owned cappies. XD
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mattabesta
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeSun Sep 21, 2008 12:44 am

Zealot_Kommunizma wrote:
mattabesta wrote:


what do you mean icelandic companies have factories in the us, denmark, norway, UK, irealnd canade and russia so ICELAND is exploiting the US?

To a lesser extent yes. Icelander owners are exploiting Unitedstatian, British, Irish, Canadian and Russian workers.

I call it "country exploitation" though when the presence of foreign companies is massive within the exploited country and when these foreign nations have a larger presence and domainance in that country than that country has in them.

Of course, objectively, even Mexican owners having companies in France would exploit french workers.

Stos wrote:
Of course not. How does one exploit a bunch of land separated from the rest by artificial boundaries? I doubt that the land would mind

When I say "countries" I'm referring to the populations of those countries.

so the woeld is exploiting itself???????????
OMG run!!!!!!!
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Zealot_Kommunizma
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeSun Sep 21, 2008 3:04 am

mattabesta wrote:


so the woeld is exploiting itself???????????
OMG run!!!!!!!

What?
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mattabesta
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeTue Sep 23, 2008 5:13 am

Zealot_Kommunizma wrote:
mattabesta wrote:


so the woeld is exploiting itself???????????
OMG run!!!!!!!

What?


yes the world is exploiting itself Run or YOU will get EXPLOITED
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Black_Cross
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 12:21 am

mattabesta wrote:
Zealot_Kommunizma wrote:
mattabesta wrote:


so the woeld is exploiting itself???????????
OMG run!!!!!!!

What?

yes the world is exploiting itself Run or YOU will get EXPLOITED

Ima go out on a limb and assume that when Zealot says "What?", he doesn't mean, "please repeat yourself", but rather, "please don't say stupid shit". Of course i assume this because your response was oh so confused.
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mattabesta
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 12:32 am

Anarchist.Dagger wrote:
mattabesta wrote:
Zealot_Kommunizma wrote:
mattabesta wrote:


so the woeld is exploiting itself???????????
OMG run!!!!!!!

What?

yes the world is exploiting itself Run or YOU will get EXPLOITED

Ima go out on a limb and assume that when Zealot says "What?", he doesn't mean, "please repeat yourself", but rather, "please don't say stupid shit". Of course i assume this because your response was oh so confused.

I'm making fun of him, he says exploiting is when companies have factories/offices in othere cuntries wich is ofcourse rediculus, I mean indian companies have factories in south africa and even companies form tiny cuntries like iceland have workers in othere cuntries.

ok heres something, when there is economic prosparity in Cuntrie A it will seek abrod with the money it has wich employes ppl in othere cuntries and sends money there wich eqalises the cuntries though not completely eqal they grow toghether and that's kind of communistic.
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Liche
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 4:58 am

Exploiting is when you exploit people, as simple as that.

Rpping another country off, is an example, and also taking advantage of a third world country. I think that is what he means.
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Zealot_Kommunizma
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 5:26 am

mattabesta wrote:

I'm making fun of him, he says exploiting is when companies have factories/offices in othere cuntries wich is ofcourse rediculus, I mean indian companies have factories in south africa and even companies form tiny cuntries like iceland have workers in othere cuntries.

I'm indeed making a refrence to the stupidity of the joke when asking "what", like Anarchist.Dagger assumes.

mattabesta wrote:

ok heres something, when there is economic prosparity in Cuntrie A it will seek abrod with the money it has wich employes ppl in othere cuntries and sends money there wich eqalises the cuntries though not completely eqal they grow toghether and that's kind of communistic.

When companies of country A are stablished in country B is not with the idea to "send money there" but "to take money from there". That's right. A German company stablishes assembly facilities for their cars in Mexico and Brazil, stablishes dealerships and sells them within the same territory in which they were assemblied or in nearby countries. With which purpose? That Germany doesn't have to put prime resources, doesn't have to pay "geman-high" salaries and can avoid the whole logistic implications of sending the car directly from Germany. All that with the intention to get as much revenue as posible.

The car will be built by Mexicans, bought by Mexicans, and profit will go to Germany.

If the German company didn't make money out of the whole operation and wasn't the main beneficiary, then it would be absolutely senseless to make that enterprise.

This can be said as Germany exploiting Mexico for the next reasons:
1. Germany is employing mexican workers to produce a product "of theirs".
2. Germany is selling that Mexican-made car to Mexicans.
3. Instead of all money staying and being reinvested within Mexico, a greater part of it goes to Germany enriching the german company and the german government.
4. The greatest benefiiciary, as a nation, from this transaction is Germany.

This is at a national level. At a more particular level, German burgeoise is exploiting the Mexican working class together with the Mexican Burgeoise.

In the case of Iceland stablishing companies in USA, Iceland is exploiting USA's wealth to some extent, Iceland is taking an advantage of USA's prosperity to increase its own prosperity. That makes Iceland an indirect beneficiary of USA's exploitation of other countries.

In the case of Mexican companies having production and distribution facilities for example in Venezuela Mexican companies are exploiting Venezuelan workers and if the money those enterprises get is reinvested in Mexico then ther will be a minimum profit for Mexico (pretty much because of Mexico's quite low taxations). If Venezuela nationalizes those companies, for an instance all money will stay within venezuela and will be reivested there, Venezuelan workers won't be exploited by Mexican company for its profit and Venezuela won't be buying a product nor paying for a Mexican service.

That's how it works.

Businesses are exploitation tools since their objective is to give as much profit as possible to the company thus its owner(s).
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mattabesta
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 7:13 pm

Zealot_Kommunizma wrote:
mattabesta wrote:

I'm making fun of him, he says exploiting is when companies have factories/offices in othere cuntries wich is ofcourse rediculus, I mean indian companies have factories in south africa and even companies form tiny cuntries like iceland have workers in othere cuntries.

I'm indeed making a refrence to the stupidity of the joke when asking "what", like Anarchist.Dagger assumes.

mattabesta wrote:

ok heres something, when there is economic prosparity in Cuntrie A it will seek abrod with the money it has wich employes ppl in othere cuntries and sends money there wich eqalises the cuntries though not completely eqal they grow toghether and that's kind of communistic.

When companies of country A are stablished in country B is not with the idea to "send money there" but "to take money from there". That's right. A German company stablishes assembly facilities for their cars in Mexico and Brazil, stablishes dealerships and sells them within the same territory in which they were assemblied or in nearby countries. With which purpose? That Germany doesn't have to put prime resources, doesn't have to pay "geman-high" salaries and can avoid the whole logistic implications of sending the car directly from Germany. All that with the intention to get as much revenue as posible.

The car will be built by Mexicans, bought by Mexicans, and profit will go to Germany.

If the German company didn't make money out of the whole operation and wasn't the main beneficiary, then it would be absolutely senseless to make that enterprise.

This can be said as Germany exploiting Mexico for the next reasons:
1. Germany is employing mexican workers to produce a product "of theirs".
2. Germany is selling that Mexican-made car to Mexicans.
3. Instead of all money staying and being reinvested within Mexico, a greater part of it goes to Germany enriching the german company and the german government.
4. The greatest benefiiciary, as a nation, from this transaction is Germany.

This is at a national level. At a more particular level, German burgeoise is exploiting the Mexican working class together with the Mexican Burgeoise.

In the case of Iceland stablishing companies in USA, Iceland is exploiting USA's wealth to some extent, Iceland is taking an advantage of USA's prosperity to increase its own prosperity. That makes Iceland an indirect beneficiary of USA's exploitation of other countries.

In the case of Mexican companies having production and distribution facilities for example in Venezuela Mexican companies are exploiting Venezuelan workers and if the money those enterprises get is reinvested in Mexico then ther will be a minimum profit for Mexico (pretty much because of Mexico's quite low taxations). If Venezuela nationalizes those companies, for an instance all money will stay within venezuela and will be reivested there, Venezuelan workers won't be exploited by Mexican company for its profit and Venezuela won't be buying a product nor paying for a Mexican service.

That's how it works.

Businesses are exploitation tools since their objective is to give as much profit as possible to the company thus its owner(s).

and if the german company wun't be thare then the workers wun't have jobs.


the germans make money in germany by doing something, who knows and they go to mexico with the intentions of building a car factory they build a factory, that gives a mexican company more moeny and they can expand and hire more workers.
The germany company get's the factory online and hires unemployed ppl becuse they can give them lower wages this helps reduce povrety and unemployment and gives the sate more income tax. The germans get money the mexicans get money Evrybody is happy. And btw if you have a factory in a cuntrie wich your companie isn't registerd you still have to pay sales tax and corpret, maybe it's not that way in mexico but in most ntions it is.
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Zealot_Kommunizma
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 8:22 pm

mattabesta wrote:

and if the german company wun't be thare then the workers wun't have jobs.

Which is a false statement. German car industry is allowed in Mexico instead of promoting the development of a Mexican car industry, so Mexican workers are working for Germany instead of working for Mexico.

mattabesta wrote:

the germans make money in germany by doing something, who knows and they go to mexico with the intentions of building a car factory they build a factory, that gives a mexican company more moeny and they can expand and hire more workers.

German gets capital and creates German car producing company A. German car producing comany A exploits German workers and expands throughout Germany. German workers are expensive and Germany hasn't got much prime resources, Germany then sets factories in countries like Mexico where workforce is cheaper and prime materials are easier to get. Then they sell those products to Mexicans. Germany gets money from Mexico, by exploiting Mexican labour and Mexican prime resources.

That, what you call "hiring" is exploitation. The workers are the less benefited from all the productive process while the owners are the more benefited.

mattabesta wrote:

The germany company get's the factory online and hires unemployed ppl becuse they can give them lower wages this helps reduce povrety and unemployment and gives the sate more income tax. The germans get money the mexicans get money Evrybody is happy.

The Germans get money from Mexican hands investing the least. Instead of Mexico having a full gain, Germany is getting a complete gain while Mexico is getting a minimum gain.

mattabesta wrote:

And btw if you have a factory in a cuntrie wich your companie isn't registerd you still have to pay sales tax and corpret, maybe it's not that way in mexico but in most ntions it is.

You have to pay taxes, which are usually small enough to be attractive to the investor.
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Stos
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 8:30 pm

The only good thing about the Rand-worshipers is that they don't try to deny exploitation, only argue that they're so awesome that they deserve to exploit people.
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Liche
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PostSubject: Re: 1850's and karl marxes time.   1850's and karl marxes time. - Page 2 Icon_minitimeWed Sep 24, 2008 9:44 pm

Stos wrote:
The only good thing about the Rand-worshipers is that they don't try to deny exploitation, only argue that they're so awesome that they deserve to exploit people.
Every one knows awesome people are against exploitation, just look at Jesus and Mohammad.
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